Free PTCB Practice Test, Part 3/3 (30 Questions)

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61. When handling hazardous drugs (HDs), deactivation refers to

Correct! Wrong!

Deactivation is using an oxidizer to degrade a hazardous material. Following deactivation, the contaminated area must be further cleaned, decontaminated, or disinfected prior to use.

62. A patient arrives with a prescription for carbamazepine (Tegretol) 200 mg bid. The pharmacy technician understands that "bid" means the drug should be taken

Correct! Wrong!

The abbreviation bid is commonly used by prescribers to indicate the drug should be taken twice daily.

63. On entering an order into the computer, a drug utilization review (DUR) message is received. What is the appropriate action for the pharmacy technician?

Correct! Wrong!

A drug utilization review (DUR) message indicates a potential issue such as drug interactions, duplicate therapies, or contraindications. A DUR message requires the pharmacist to review the order and attempt to resolve the issue.

64. How many metoprolol tartrate 50 mg tablets will need to be triturated to compound 200 mL of a 10 mg/mL suspension?

Correct! Wrong!

Set up a proportion with the concentration and total volume to determine the total number of milligrams needed: (10 mg) / (1 mL) = X / (200 mL). Cross-multiply and divide to find X. X = 2,000 mg. To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the total number of milligrams by the number of milligrams in each tablet: (2,000 mg) / (50 mg ) = 40 tablets.

65. The primary pharmacologic advantage of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) over opioid analgesics is

Correct! Wrong!

NSAIDs are used for mild to moderate pain because they have no potential for dependence and the risk of serious adverse effects is lower than with opioid analgesics.

66. Pseudoephedrine is approved for over-the-counter sales. Why do most states require that the drug be kept behind the pharmacy counter and that purchaser identification be monitored?

Please select 2 correct answers

Correct! Wrong!

Pseudoephedrine is the starting chemical to illegally make methamphetamine. The pharmacy is attempting to prevent drug diversion.

67. To avoid medication errors, what is the best way to write a prescription for three-hundred milligrams?

Correct! Wrong!

Leading or trailing zeros are potential sources of medication errors. Choice A is the most clearly written and is less likely to be read incorrectly.

68. The pharmacy technician is reviewing the possible side effects of a drug and reads that it may cause bradycardia. What is bradycardia?

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Some drugs cause bradycardia, which is a slowing of the speed or rate of the heart.

69. Quality control procedures for nonsterile compounding of stock medications in a pharmacy require the technician to record all the following information EXCEPT

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Because the medication is being used for stock and is not patient specific, a patient name is not required for the log. Additional information such as quantities and pharmacist’s signature will also be required.

70. Why does pseudoephedrine have restrictions that limit the amount that can be purchased and require the patient to show a photo ID?

Correct! Wrong!

Pseudoephedrine is not a controlled substance, nor does it exhibit acute toxicity. Although pseudoephedrine is listed as a restricted drug by the Food and Drug Administration, it is not a high-alert medication. It has been used illicitly to make methamphetamine, a highly addictive stimulant.

71. Although drugs are always stored per the manufacturer’s instructions, the majority of medications may be stored

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A drug should always be stored at the temperature and humidity level specified by the manufacturer. For most medications, this is 68 to 77 degrees F (20 to 25 degrees C) and 40% humidity. Improper storage can decrease the shelf life of the active ingredient.

72. All of the following are considered high-alert medications EXCEPT

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High-alert medications are those that have an increased risk for causing significant patient harm when used incorrectly. Warfarin, oxycodone, and insulin may cause significant harm to the patient if a medication error occurs. Pseudoephedrine is not considered a high-alert medication.

73. Which of the following is NOT a quality control procedure for a technician preparing sterile products?

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Viable particle testing on laminar airflow hoods and clean rooms must be done every 6 months by a certified professional. Technicians are responsible for the other three procedures.

74. For each hazardous drug in the pharmacy, a(n) ______ must be kept on file.

Correct! Wrong!

Pharmacies must keep material safety data sheets (MSDS) for all hazardous drugs; this describes the proper storage and handling of the medication.

75. A patient taking alprazolam (Xanax) should be aware of all the following adverse effects EXCEPT:

Correct! Wrong!

Alprazolam is a controlled substance used to relieve (not cause) anxiety. Major side effects include drowsiness, confusion, and the potential for dependence.

76. Keeping a list of items currently in stock and their quantities is called

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Maintaining a current inventory of medications helps to ensure the pharmacy has the medications on hand to best meet the needs of its patients.

77. The pharmacy technician notices that a drug has an expiration date of 09/2022. This means that the drug should be removed from stock

Correct! Wrong!

Drugs should never be dispensed to a patient if they will expire while the patient is taking them; therefore, the medication should be pulled no later than September 01, 2022.

78. A patient claims the anxiety drug he has been prescribed is not working. He asks the pharmacy technician to suggest an over-the-counter (OTC) alternative. What action should the pharmacy technician take?

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A pharmacy technician is not permitted to make recommendations regarding the effectiveness of specific medications or the patient’s treatment plan. The pharmacist is always consulted for these types of questions.

79. A National Drug Code Number (NDC) is used to safely identify drugs. The first segment of the 10-digit code identifies the

Correct! Wrong!

Segment 1 is a unique number that identifies the pharmaceutical company that manufactured the drug.

80. Some drugs are administered using transdermal patches. What is the primary reason a prescriber may choose this route to administer a drug?

Correct! Wrong!

Transdermal patches deliver a low, consistent drug dose over a long time period, which permits the convenience of less frequent dosing.

81. Saw palmetto is an herbal supplement used by patients to treat symptoms related to the

Correct! Wrong!

Saw palmetto is primarily promoted to enhance urinary health. This herbal supplement is claimed to improve symptoms associated with an enlarged prostate.

82. Most prescribers prefer to order generic drugs rather than brand name drugs. This is because generic drugs generally

Correct! Wrong!

The primary benefit of generic drugs is that they are less expensive than brand name drugs. A brand name drug and its generic equivalent share the same indications, actions, and adverse effects.

83. Form DEA 222 is required when the pharmacy is ordering

Correct! Wrong!

The pharmacist must complete DEA Form 222 when ordering any Schedule II drug; the paperwork is needed to prevent unauthorized ordering of controlled substances.

84. A patient received a 30-day supply of medication on August 23. On September 14, the patient attempts to refill the medication again, but the third party rejects the transaction. What is the most likely reason the insurance company declined to fill the medication?

Correct! Wrong!

The fact that the patient got a 30-day supply 22 days ago is the most likely reason the insurance company will not refill it. Most insurance companies require that at least 75% or more of the patient’s supply be exhausted before allowing a refill. Because it went through last time, it should not require a prior authorization nor should it be a nonformulary drug. Most insurance companies pay for refills unless the patient has a specific mail-order plan.

85. Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a restricted use medication because it increases the risk for

Correct! Wrong!

Isotretinoin is a known human teratogen that can cause fetal abnormalities or death. The patient must agree to monthly pregnancy testing and to use reliable birth control during therapy.

86. All of the following are true regarding a drug recall EXCEPT

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The FDA cannot require a manufacturer to recall a drug. The FDA may, however, may ask the manufacturer to voluntarily recall a drug, usually because of recently identified adverse effects or errors in the manufacturing process.

87. Which of the following is an over-the-counter drug used to reduce the amount of acid secretion by the stomach?

Correct! Wrong!

Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that reduces stomach acid in patients with peptic ulcer and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). It is available over the counter or by prescription.

88. All of the following must be considered when selecting active or inactive ingredients for non-sterile compounding EXCEPT

Correct! Wrong!

Ingredients to be compounded must be compatible. This includes physical and chemical properties as well as the stability of the compounded product. The color and shape of the final product are less important than compatibility factors.

89. Which of the following is true regarding child-proof caps on medicine bottles?

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Child-proof caps should be used for most patients to prevent accidental poisoning of children but the patient may specifically request easy-open caps.

90. Which of the following vaccines must be stored in a freezer?

Correct! Wrong!

Most vaccines are stored under refrigeration. The varicella vaccine is one that must be stored frozen.

Free PTCB Practice Test, Part 3/3 (30 Questions)
You got them all, great job!
Wow, you got them all right - that's amazing! You will have no trouble passing the PTCB exam.
Good job!
Not bad at all! Anything above 26 out of 30 questions means you are likely to score 1400 or higher out of 1600 on the test, which is what you need to pass.
OK
Between 22 and 25 correct means you are on the way to a score between 1200 and 1400 out of 1600. Perhaps retake the test and see if you can do better?
Failed
You are missing a few too many. I'd recommend retaking the test and see if you can learn from your mistakes!

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